The Blessed Virgin Mary was sanctified in the womb,
before her birth, at the instant
of animation. (Conception) Objecting, I Cor 15:46 says, Yet that was
not first which
is spiritual, but that which is natural; afterwards that which
is spiritual. Only by sanctifying grace man is born spiritually into
a son of God according to John 1:13 which states, Who are born
.of
God. Birth from the womb is a natural birth, so it seems Mary
was not sanctified in the womb. On the contrary, Luke 1:28 says
the angel addressed her, Hail, full of grace
This was said
of her before her acceptance to become the Mother of Christ. Mary had been
favored, not just because of her virginity, but because she, who brought
forth the only-begotten of the Father full of grace and truth, received greater
privileges than all others. Sanctification in the womb had been granted to
others by way of privilege, such as Jeremiah, to whom it was said in Jeremiah
1:5,
before thou camest out of the womb, I sanctified
thee
John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Ghost even from
his mothers womb as stated in Luke 1:15, For he (John the Baptist)
shall be great before the Lord
.and he shall be filled with the Holy
Ghost even from his mothers womb. However, only the Mother of
God was full of grace from the moment of her conception and preserved from
all sin. (This prophecy of Luke 1:15 of John the Baptist receiving the Holy
Ghost from his mothers womb seems to be fulfilled in Luke 1:41 where
it says,
the infant leaped in her womb
) Things of
the Old Testament were figures of the New Testament, according to I Cor 10:11,
Now all these things happened to them in figure. The sanctification
of the tabernacle signifies the sanctification of the Mother of God, who
is called Gods Tabernacle according to Psalms 18:6 which says, He
hath set his tabernacle in the sun
Psalms 45:5 says,
the most High hath sanctified his own tabernacle which
means God sanctified his tabernacle. Exodus 40:31-32 says,
After
all things were perfected (the O.T.),the cloud covered the tabernacle of
the testimony, and the glory of the Lord filled it. This verse is not
to be understood that the tabernacle was set up first (Marys Conception)
followed by the Lord filling it, rather, it is to be understood that at the
moment Marys body and soul were fused together (animation), the Lord
sanctified her. The cloud seems to signify a washing. The Blessed Virgin
was sanctified in the womb before incurring original sin, as to the personal
stain, but she was not freed from the guilt which the whole nature is subject,
so as to enter into paradise otherwise than through the sacrifice of Christ
as is stated in Hebrews 10:19, Having therefore, brethren, a confidence
in entering into the holies by the blood of Christ. This fullness of
grace she received sustained her until the Incarnation. Until the Incarnation,
Mary was not freed from the fomes, in its essence, but it remained fettered
due to abundant grace and, more perfectly, by Divine Providence, as shown
in Song of Solomon 4:7, Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is
not a spot in thee. The fomes is the Law of the Flesh or Law of the
Members as shown in Romans 7:23,25. Mary was freed from the fomes at the
Incarnation as this freedom rebounded from the child Jesus to the mother.
This is signified in Ezekiel 43:2 which says, And behold the glory
of God of Israel came by way of the east: (Blessed Virgin) and his voice
was like the noise of many waters, and the earth (Virgins flesh) shined
with his glory. (Christs) The Waters signify Divine
Favor. It was fitting for Mary to be preserved from sin because God so prepares
those, whom he chooses for some particular office, that they are made capable
of fulfilling it. (II Cor 3:6, Eph 3:7) The Blessed Virgin was chosen by
God to be His mother and, by His grace, made her worthy. (Luke 1:30,31) Had
Mary ever sinned, she would not have been worthy to be the Mother of God,
first, because the honor of the parents reflects on the child. (Prov 17:6)
The Mother of Jesus was Mary and the father was the Holy Ghost. (Luke 3:23,
Matt 1:20) Secondly, because of the singular or unique bond between her and
Christ, who took flesh from her: and it is written, (II Cor 6:15)
and what concord (have in common) hath Christ with
belial?
(Belial=Falsehood) Thirdly, because of the unique manner
in which the Son of God, who is Divine Wisdom (I Cor 1:24) dwelt in her,
not only in her soul but in her womb. Wisdom will not enter a malicious soul,
nor dwell in a body subject to sins.(Col 3:8-16, I Cor 5:8, Rom 7:14)
Objecting, Mary seems to have doubted her faith which is the meaning in Luke
2:35 which says, And thy own soul a sword shall pierce.. Replying,
The word Sword signifies doubt, not of unbelief, but of wonder.
By Doubt is meant, according to Basil, that the Blessed
Virgin, while standing at the foot of the cross, was troubled in mind , that
is to say, on the one hand she saw Christ suffer such humiliation and on
the other saw his marvelous works. The sanctification of Mary in the womb
was ordered for the salvation of others (I Cor 12:7) by way of foreshadowing
the sanctification which was to be effected through Christ, first, as to
his passion (Heb 13:12 which Jeremiah foretold) and secondly, as to His Baptism,
which says in I Cor 6:11,
But you are washed, but you are
sanctified
to which Baptism John prepared men by His Baptism.
Objecting, if Mary was without sin then why did she make an offering when
she presented Christ at the temple as stated in Luke 2:24 which says,
And to offer a sacrifice, according as it is written in the law of
the Lord, a pair of turtle doves, or two young pigeons.? In reply,
if Mary was purified because she was unclean, then why was Christ circumcised
under the law?( Luke 2:21) The truth is, Mary did not need purification,
but wished to fulfill the Observance of Purification, on account
of the precept of the law. Luke 2:22 states, And after the days of
her purification, according to the law of Moses, were accomplished,
... Moses seems to have chosen his words in order to exclude
uncleanliness from the mother of God as it is stated in Leviticus 12:2, If
a woman having received seed
, but the Lord was conceived by the
Holy Ghost as said in Luke 1:35. Christ submitted to the law to show his
approval of the law (Matt 5:17) as an example of humility and obedience for
as James 4:6 says, God
giveth grace to the humble. So it
was becoming that the mother should be like the son in humility. Christ also
submitted to the law so the Jews would not have an excuse to slander him.
Perpetual Virginity of Mary
Was Mary a virgin in Christs conception? Objecting, Luke 2:33 says, And his father and mother were wondering at those things, which were spoken concerning him. Also, Luke 2:48 says, behold thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing. This seems to show that Mary was not a virgin in conceiving Christ because no child having father and mother is conceived by a virgin mother. On the contrary, it is written in Isaiah 7:14, Behold, a virgin shall conceive Joseph is called the father of the Saviour, not that he really was the father, but that he was considered by men to be so, for the safeguarding of Marys good name. This is shown in Luke 3:23 which states, being (as it was supposed) the son of Joseph Objecting, Galations 4:4 says Christ was ..made of a woman.. The word Woman in this verse is used only when she has known a man carnally. Replying, the term Woman seems to apply to one who is know of a man but, according to the custom of the Hebrew tongue, the word Mulier is used in this verse instead of Femina, which signifies woman to those of the female sex who are virgins.
Was Mary a virgin in Christs birth? Isaiah 7:14 suffices for this answer which says, Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son
Was Mary a virgin after Christs birth? Objecting, it would seem Mary
did not remain a virgin after Christs birth for it is written in Matthew
1:18, When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came
together, she was found with child, of the Holy Ghost. It says,
before they came together which seems to mean that after
Christs birth
Mary and Joseph had intercourse. Replying, the word Before comes
from the latin word
Prae which means Time. Sometimes the word
Before denotes a fixed time and sometimes an indefinite time.
It denotes an indefinite time in this verse. To extract the meaning, simply
turn the sentence around,
She was found with child of the Holy
Ghost, before they came together, which means that Joseph knew her
even less afterwards. Objecting, Matthew 1:20 says,
Fear not
to take unto thee Mary thy wife
This verse seems to imply that the marriage must be consummated, therefore,
Mary did not remain a virgin after Christs birth. Matthew 1:24-25 says
Joseph Knew her indicating knowledge by intercourse. On the contrary,
Luke 1:27 says Mary was Espoused to Joseph and the fact that
the marriage is declared, does not insinuate the loss of virginity, but rather,
witnesses to the reality of the union. Romans 8:29 says Christ was the
First-born of many brethren. The scriptures designate the
First-born, not only a child who is followed by others, but also
the one who is born first. Otherwise, if a child was not first-born unless
followed by others, the first-fruits would not be due as long as there were
no further children, which is false, since according to the law the first-fruits
had to be redeemed within a month as stated in Numbers 18:16. Objecting,
John 2:12 says, After this, He went down to Capharnaum, he and
his mother, and his brethren
which seems to prove Mary had other
sons. This is also stated in Matthew 12:49-50. Some have even argued that
the brethren of the Lord could be Josephs sons by another wife. On
the contrary, Joseph is to be believed to have remained chaste since
he is not said to have had another wife and a holy man does not live otherwise
than chastely. Scripture speaks of brethren in 4 senses: namely, those who
are united by being of the same parents, of the same nation, of the same
family, or by common affection. The brethren of the Lord are cousins of the
Saviour, the sons of Mary, his mothers sister. This Mary is the wife
of Alphaeus, whose son was James the Less, known as a brother of the Lord.
(Gal 1:19) Therefore, arguing Matthew 27:55-56 and John 19:25 does not hold.
Mary, the Mother of Jesus, must be believed to have remained a virgin and
this was foretold by the prophet Ezekiel (Ez 44:2) which says,
This
gate shall be shut, it shall not be opened, and no man shall enter in by
it; because the Lord, the God of Israel, hath entered in by it, therefore
it shall be shut.
(Note: St. Thomas speaks so beautifully on the Blessed Mother and spoke deeply
on the subject of Marys
sinlessness. However, he did not perceive correctly at what moment Marys
soul was sanctified, whether it
was before or after animation. The Church spoke and said it wasnt before
or after, but at the moment of ani-mation.)